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    PSLE Maths 2012

    Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Primary 6 & PSLE
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    • K
      kiasuursula
      last edited by

      James Ang:
      Paper 1 (40 marks, no calculator) would have been completed by now. Is it easy?

      DD just called. She said is quite easy this year. If easy, that means mean mark will go up. It w b hard to score high point.

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      • J
        James Ang
        last edited by

        That’s great. 1 more hour to go.

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        • K
          kuts
          last edited by

          James Ang:
          That's great. 1 more hour to go.

          Paper 1 was easy, except one tricky qn no 29.

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          • L
            loktgc
            last edited by

            Paper 2 was quite challenging

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            • W
              wargame123
              last edited by

              question 29 answer is 28. right

              from what my son says the method is as follows
              110 minus 1 as the last man is an extra out of the group
              then use 109 divided by 4 which gives u 27 r1 as in a group there can be 3 women and 1 men
              the remainder of 1 means that in one of the group they have 4 women
              then add 1 to 27 as there is still a man at the back
              and my son also said that those ppl who put 44 has double counted the man
              making it: m w w w m m w w w m m
              thus it will have no women in betwwen some of the men

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              • C
                Clairifina
                last edited by

                How on earth do you do the last question for paper 2?

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                • S
                  sharmila
                  last edited by

                  .

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                  • 2
                    24hr_mum
                    last edited by

                    wargame123:
                    question 29 answer is 28. right

                    from what my son says the method is as follows
                    110 minus 1 as the last man is an extra out of the group
                    then use 109 divided by 4 which gives u 27 r1 as in a group there can be 3 women and 1 men
                    the remainder of 1 means that in one of the group they have 4 women
                    then add 1 to 27 as there is still a man at the back
                    and my son also said that those ppl who put 44 has double counted the man
                    making it: m w w w m m w w w m m
                    thus it will have no women in betwwen some of the men
                    My dd ans also 28 😓

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                    • 2
                      24hr_mum
                      last edited by

                      wargame123:
                      question 29 answer is 28. right

                      from what my son says the method is as follows
                      110 minus 1 as the last man is an extra out of the group
                      then use 109 divided by 4 which gives u 27 r1 as in a group there can be 3 women and 1 men
                      the remainder of 1 means that in one of the group they have 4 women
                      then add 1 to 27 as there is still a man at the back
                      and my son also said that those ppl who put 44 has double counted the man
                      making it: m w w w m m w w w m m
                      thus it will have no women in betwwen some of the men
                      My dd ans also 28 😓

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                      • C
                        Clairifina
                        last edited by

                        The last question was quite tough… Does anybody know how to do it? Even the top math student in my class was struggling.

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